Posts Tagged ‘speed of light’

Instantaneous Quantum Wave Phase Derives Special Relativity

August 24, 2019

None of the current well known quantum interpretations are satisfactory–they all have shortcomings that cause logical contradictions to known experimental data.  I think all would agree that the Everett many worlds interpretation has an element of absurdity to it (doesn’t mean it’s wrong, just seems improbable), and the Copenhagen interpretation where decoherence occurs somewhere near a detector has significant logical problems (see the EPR paradox to start).  Physicists seem to like best the modified Bohm interpretation that works around Bell’s inequality, but it adds a wave term (the guiding pilot wave) to equations describing time evolution of particle position and motion.  This redirects the particle to form an interference pattern on a target–but in so doing, since the particle has momentum, it exerts a force for which we have no experimental evidence.

So, I thought long and hard and came up with a new quantum interpretation that seems to overcome these problems, and as far as I can tell, seems logically consistent.  Better yet, particles that conform to the assumptions of this interpretation must meet the constraints of special relativity.

I thought this interpretation flows logically out of the thought process of how quantum interference works.  We know that quantum entangled particles will always resolve to opposite states instantaneously across any distance, appearing to disobey causality (when a detector resolves one of the particles, that sets the state of the other particle instantaneously even if they are far apart–see various Aspect experiment variations).  But, neither particle can exceed the speed of light, nor can any communication between the particles exceed the speed of light.

Now that gives a powerful hint of what this implies–that if the momentum aspect of the particle cannot exceed the speed of light, something else must exceed it.  I realized that if the particle was represented by some construct of waves, the waves could form a rogue-wave–a soliton or delta function where the group could not exceed the speed of light, but component wave phases would not have such a limit–a change in phase would be reflected across the entire length of the wave instantaneously.  The rate of change in time of this phase is limited, so that makes the particle as a whole causal–but the instantaneous effect of this phase change would cause an instantaneous effect on quantum interference over the entire distance of the wave.  And–a quantum interference effect would relocate the particle by virtue of the delta function sum of interfering waves, without the expenditure of energy (the problem with the Bohm interpretation).

This got much, much more interesting as I started working on the math for such a particle–I almost accidentally discovered that such particles would always look like it was moving at the same speed, regardless of how fast an observer was moving!  Instantly, I realized that this quantum interpretation would derive the primary postulate of special relativity–and leads to some pretty astonishing conclusions.  This happens because unlike a solid baseball, a group wave will classically Doppler shift according to the observer’s relative velocity.  If the entire wave Doppler shifts simultaneously, which will be true with this quantum instantaneous phase wave interpretation, the relative velocity of the observer’s frame of reference is exactly cancelled out by the corresponding Doppler shift of the particle’s wave components.

To me, this was an incredibly important finding–it says that any particle formed from instantaneous phase waves will act according to special relativity.  And–if a particle obeys special relativity, it must Doppler shift–and thus must be composed only of various types of wave.  There cannot be any internal structure in an electron, for example, that doesn’t Doppler shift and thus it must be composed solely of wave components.  Now, admittedly, that’s a pretty big box of components–they don’t have to be planar waves, but could be oscillating vectors, helical waves, compression waves, you name it.  All it has to do is Doppler shift and special relativity will fall out.

Amazing! Or so I thought.  I proposed this to many different experts in this field, and all of them pooh-poohed it.  I submitted to 5 journals–all rejected.  I guess I’m totally on my own, which is rather a shame–I think there’s some really good new stuff here.

Agemoz

PS: here’s the mathematical derivation, feel free to comment:

group_wave_constant_speed

Noncausal solution, Lorentz Geometry, and trying a LaGrangian solution to deriving inertia

December 31, 2012

Happy New Year with wishes for peace and prosperity to all!

I had worked out the group wave concept for explaining non-causal quantum interactions, and realized how logical it seems–we are so used to thinking about the speed of light limit causing causal behavior that it makes the non-causal quantum interactions seem mysterious.  But when thinking of a universe that spontaneously developed from nothing, non-causal (infinite speed) interactions should be the default, what is weird is why particles and fields are restricted to the speed of light.  That’s why I came up with the group wave construct for entities–a Fourier composition of infinite speed waves explains instant quantum interference, but to get an entity such as a particle to move, there is a restriction on how fast the wave can change phase.  Where does that limitation come from?  Don’t know at this point, but with that limitation, the non-causal paradox is resolved.

Another unrelated realization occurred to me when I saw some derivation work that made the common unit setting of c to 1.  This is legal, and simplifies viewing derivations since relativistic interactions now do not have c carried around everywhere.  For example, beta in the Lorentz transforms now becomes Sqrt(1 – v^2) rather than Sqrt(1 – (v^2/c^2)).  As long as the units match, there’s no harm in doing this from a derivation standpoint, you’ll still get right answers–but I realized that doing so will hide the geometry of Lorentz transforms.  Any loop undergoing a relativistic transform to another frame of reference will transform by Sqrt(1 – (v^2/c^2)) by geometry, but a researcher would maybe miss this if they saw the transform as Sqrt(1 – v^2).   You can see the geometry if you assume an electron is a ring with orientation of the ring axis in the direction of travel.  The ring becomes a cylindrical spiral–unroll one cycle of the spiral and the pythagorean relation Sqrt(1 – v^2/c^2)) will appear.  I was able to show this is true for any orientation, and hand-waved my way to generalizing to any closed loop other than a ring.  The Lorentz transforms have a geometrical basis if (and that’s a big if that forms the basis of my unitary twist field theory) particles have a loop structure.

Then I started in on trying to derive general relativity.  Ha Ha, you are all laughing–hey, The Impossible Dream is my theme song!  But anyway, here’s what I am doing–if particles can be represented by loops, then there should be an explanation for the inertial behavior of such loops (totally ignoring the Higgs particle and the Standard Model for right now).  I see a way to derive the inertial behavior of a particle where a potential field has been applied.  A loop will have a path through the potential field that will get distorted.  The energy of the distortion will induce a corrective effect that is likely to be proportional to the momentum of the particle.  If  I can show this to be true, then I will have derived the inertial behavior of the particle from the main principle of the unitary twist field theory.

My first approach was to attempt a Lagrangian mechanics solution.  Lagrange’s equation takes the difference of the kinetic energy from the potential energy and creates a time and space dependent differential equation that can be solved for the time dependent motion of the particle.  It works for single body problems quickly and easily, but this is a multiple body problem with electrostatic and magnetic forces.  My limited computation skills rapidly showed an unworkable equation for solution.  Now I’m chewing on what simplifications could be done that would allow determining the acceleration of the particle from the applied potential.

Agemoz